Implicit Functions
When equations secretly define functions - and when they don't - Kaplan §2.10
Prereq: Partial Derivatives & Chain Rule
A point traces the unit circle. At most spots we can write $y$ as a smooth function of $x$. But at $(1,0)$ and $(-1,0)$, everything breaks. What makes some points "safe" for treating $y$ as a function of $x$, and others dangerous?
When Does an Equation Secretly Define a Function?
Take the familiar equation $x^2 + y^2 = 1$. We know it traces a circle, but let's think about what it means to "solve for $y$." If we try, we get $y = \pm\sqrt{1 - x^2}$ - two branches, not one. That plus-or-minus is the problem.
But here's the key observation: if we zoom in near the point $(0, 1)$ - the top of the circle - we only see one branch. The lower half is far away. Locally, the equation quietly defines $y = \sqrt{1 - x^2}$, a perfectly good function.
Now zoom in near $(1, 0)$ - the rightmost point. Both branches collide there. The curve goes vertical. There's no way to write $y$ as a single-valued function of $x$ near that spot.
So here's the setup: we always start with a known point $(x_0, y_0)$ that already sits on the curve - meaning $F(x_0, y_0) = 0$. The question isn't "does a solution exist somewhere?" It's: can we smoothly track that solution as we nudge $x$ away from $x_0$? Does each nearby $x$ give exactly one nearby $y$?
The answer comes from $F_y$. Write $F(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 - 1$. At the known point $(0, 1)$, we have $F_y = 2y = 2 \neq 0$. That means $F$ is strictly increasing in $y$ there - so if you fix any $x$ near $0$ and slide $y$ up through values near $1$, $F$ crosses zero exactly once. That unique crossing is our implicit function: $y = f(x)$.
At $(1, 0)$, by contrast, $F_y = 2y = 0$. The function $F$ isn't monotone in $y$ there - it bottoms out instead of crossing through. So there's no clean single crossing to track, and the implicit function breaks down.
The visualization below makes this concrete. The background shading shows $|F_y|$: bright green where $|F_y|$ is large (safe zones), red where $|F_y|$ is small (danger zones). Switch between curves to see the pattern repeat.
The Derivative You Can't See
We've established that near a point where $F_y \neq 0$, the equation $F(x,y) = 0$ secretly defines $y$ as a function of $x$. But what's the derivative $dy/dx$ of that hidden function? We can't just differentiate an explicit formula - we might not have one.
The trick is beautiful: since $F(x, y(x)) = 0$ holds for all $x$ near our point, we can differentiate both sides with respect to $x$. The right side gives zero. The left side requires the chain rule - and let's walk through it carefully.
The Derivation
Start with the identity that holds everywhere on the curve:
Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$. On the left, $F$ depends on $x$ in two ways: directly, and through $y$. The chain rule gives:
Since $dx/dx = 1$, this simplifies to:
Now solve for $dy/dx$:
That minus sign isn't arbitrary. Think about it: if increasing $x$ pushes $F$ upward ($F_x > 0$), then $y$ must decrease to compensate and keep $F = 0$. The curve fights back.
Numerical Check
Let's verify this on the unit circle at the point $\left(\frac{1}{2},\, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)$. We have $F(x,y) = x^2 + y^2 - 1$, so:
From the explicit formula $y = \sqrt{1-x^2}$, differentiate directly: $dy/dx = -x/\sqrt{1-x^2} = -\tfrac{1/2}{\sqrt{3}/2} = -1/\sqrt{3}$. They match.
The implicit formula gave us the slope without ever solving for $y$. That's the whole point - for complicated curves where you can't solve explicitly, this is the only game in town.
Three Variables - Surfaces
Everything we just did with curves in the plane extends naturally to surfaces in space. An equation $F(x, y, z) = 0$ defines a surface. Near a point where $F_z \neq 0$, we can locally solve for $z = f(x, y)$ - the surface becomes the graph of a function.
The derivation is identical. Differentiate $F(x, y, z(x,y)) = 0$ with respect to $x$ (holding $y$ constant):
And similarly with respect to $y$:
Example: The Unit Sphere
Take $F(x,y,z) = x^2 + y^2 + z^2 - 1$. Then $F_x = 2x$, $F_y = 2y$, $F_z = 2z$, so:
At the point $\left(\tfrac{1}{2},\, \tfrac{1}{2},\, \tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)$ (check: $\tfrac{1}{4} + \tfrac{1}{4} + \tfrac{1}{2} = 1$), we get:
Drag the point on the sphere below. The orange tangent plane shows the local linear approximation $z \approx f(a,b) + z_x(x-a) + z_y(y-b)$. Watch what happens near the equator.
Simultaneous Equations and Jacobians
What if we have two equations relating four variables? For instance:
Two equations, four unknowns. We'd expect to "use up" two degrees of freedom, leaving two free variables. So if we pick $x$ and $y$ as independent, the system should (locally) determine $z$ and $w$ as functions of $x$ and $y$.
But which pairs of variables can serve as "outputs"? This is where Jacobians enter.
The Setup
Take total differentials of both equations:
If we want $z$ and $w$ as functions of $x$ and $y$, we hold $y$ constant ($dy = 0$) and ask: what are $dz$ and $dw$ in terms of $dx$? This gives a $2 \times 2$ linear system:
By Cramer's rule, we can solve for $dz/dx$:
Notice the pattern: the denominator is always the Jacobian of $(F,G)$ with respect to the output variables $(z,w)$. The numerator swaps one output variable for the input variable whose partial you want.
Example
Consider the system at the point $(x, y, z, w) = (1, 1, 1, 4)$:
Compute all needed partials at $(1,1,1,4)$:
The denominator Jacobian:
The numerator for $\partial z/\partial x$:
Therefore:
The Implicit Function Theorem
After four cards of examples, let's step back and see the unified picture. Everything we've done - one equation in two unknowns, one equation in three unknowns, two equations in four unknowns - is a special case of a single, powerful theorem.
The General Statement
Suppose we have $m$ equations in $m + n$ variables:
At a point where these equations hold and the $m \times m$ Jacobian
there exist unique smooth functions $y_1 = f_1(\mathbf{x}), \ldots, y_m = f_m(\mathbf{x})$ defined in a neighborhood of the point, satisfying all $m$ equations.
$m$ equations, $m+n$ variables, Jacobian $\neq 0$
$\Longrightarrow$ unique, smooth local solutions for the $m$ "output" variables
One condition - a single determinant being nonzero - simultaneously guarantees existence, uniqueness, and smoothness. That's remarkably efficient.
The derivative formula also generalizes. Each partial derivative is a ratio of Jacobians:
Special Cases We've Seen
| Equations | Variables | Free | Solved | Condition | Formula |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| $1$ | $2$ | $x$ | $y$ | $F_y \neq 0$ | $dy/dx = -F_x/F_y$ |
| $1$ | $3$ | $x, y$ | $z$ | $F_z \neq 0$ | $z_x = -F_x/F_z$, etc. |
| $2$ | $4$ | $x, y$ | $z, w$ | $\partial(F,G)/\partial(z,w) \neq 0$ | Jacobian ratios |
The pattern is always the same: count equations, count unknowns, identify which variables you want to solve for, check that the Jacobian with respect to those variables is nonzero. If it is, you're guaranteed a smooth local solution, and you can compute all its derivatives by implicit differentiation.
Practice Problems - §2.10
From Kaplan, problems after §2.10
Given the surface $2x^2 + y^2 - z^2 = 3$, find $\partial z/\partial x$ and $\partial z/\partial y$ by implicit differentiation.
Step 1: Define $F(x,y,z) = 2x^2 + y^2 - z^2 - 3$. Compute the partial derivatives:
$F_x = 4x, \quad F_y = 2y, \quad F_z = -2z$
Step 2: Apply the implicit differentiation formulas:
$$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = -\frac{F_x}{F_z} = -\frac{4x}{-2z} = \frac{2x}{z}$$ $$\frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = -\frac{F_y}{F_z} = -\frac{2y}{-2z} = \frac{y}{z}$$Step 3 - Verification: Check at a concrete point. Let $x=1, y=2$. Then $z^2 = 2(1) + 4 - 3 = 3$, so $z = \sqrt{3}$.
$\partial z/\partial x = 2(1)/\sqrt{3} = 2/\sqrt{3} \approx 1.155$
$\partial z/\partial y = 2/\sqrt{3} \approx 1.155$
Cross-check: from $z = \sqrt{2x^2 + y^2 - 3}$, we get $z_x = 2x/\sqrt{2x^2+y^2-3} = 2/\sqrt{3}$. Matches.
Given $xyz + 2x^2z + 3xz^2 = 1$, find the partial derivatives of $z$ implicitly.
Step 1: Define $F(x,y,z) = xyz + 2x^2z + 3xz^2 - 1$. Compute partials by treating each variable in turn:
$F_x = yz + 4xz + 3z^2$
$F_y = xz$
$F_z = xy + 2x^2 + 6xz$
Step 2: Apply the formulas:
$$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = -\frac{F_x}{F_z} = -\frac{yz + 4xz + 3z^2}{xy + 2x^2 + 6xz}$$ $$\frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = -\frac{F_y}{F_z} = -\frac{xz}{xy + 2x^2 + 6xz}$$Step 3 - Verification: Check that the equation holds at a simple point. Try $x = 1, y = 0$: then $0 + 2z + 3z^2 = 1$, giving $3z^2 + 2z - 1 = 0$, so $z = 1/3$ (taking the positive root since $(3z-1)(z+1)=0$).
At $(1, 0, 1/3)$:
$F_x = 0 + 4(1)(1/3) + 3(1/9) = 4/3 + 1/3 = 5/3$
$F_z = 0 + 2 + 6(1)(1/3) = 2 + 2 = 4$
$\partial z/\partial x = -(5/3)/4 = -5/12$
Given the simultaneous equations with independent variables $x, y$ and dependent variables $u, v$, find $(\partial u/\partial x)_y$ at a point satisfying both equations.
Step 1: Define $F = x^2 - y^2 + u^2 + 2v^2 - 1$ and $G = x^2 + y^2 - u^2 - v^2 - 2$. Take total differentials, then set $dy = 0$:
$$F_u\,du + F_v\,dv = -F_x\,dx \;\;\Longrightarrow\;\; 2u\,du + 4v\,dv = -2x\,dx$$ $$G_u\,du + G_v\,dv = -G_x\,dx \;\;\Longrightarrow\;\; -2u\,du - 2v\,dv = -2x\,dx$$Step 2: Solve the system. From the second equation: $-2u\,du - 2v\,dv = -2x\,dx$, multiply by 2: $-4u\,du - 4v\,dv = -4x\,dx$. Add to the first equation:
$(2u - 4u)\,du + (4v - 4v)\,dv = (-2x - 4x)\,dx$
$-2u\,du = -6x\,dx$
Therefore: $\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \dfrac{-6x}{-2u} = \dfrac{3x}{u}$
Step 3 - Via Jacobians: As a check, use the Jacobian formula. The denominator is:
$$\frac{\partial(F,G)}{\partial(u,v)} = \begin{vmatrix} 2u & 4v \\ -2u & -2v \end{vmatrix} = (2u)(-2v) - (4v)(-2u) = -4uv + 8uv = 4uv$$The numerator:
$$\frac{\partial(F,G)}{\partial(x,v)} = \begin{vmatrix} 2x & 4v \\ 2x & -2v \end{vmatrix} = (2x)(-2v) - (4v)(2x) = -4xv - 8xv = -12xv$$So $\partial u/\partial x = -(-12xv)/(4uv) = 12xv/(4uv) = 3x/u$. Same answer.
If $F(x,y,z) = 0$ defines each variable implicitly as a function of the other two (where the relevant partial derivatives of $F$ are nonzero), prove the cyclic product equals $-1$.
Step 1: Express each factor using the implicit differentiation formula. When we view $x$ as a function of $y$ (with $z$ held constant), the "output" variable is $x$ and the "input" is $y$:
$\left(\dfrac{\partial x}{\partial y}\right)_z = -\dfrac{F_y}{F_x}$
$\left(\dfrac{\partial y}{\partial z}\right)_x = -\dfrac{F_z}{F_y}$
$\left(\dfrac{\partial z}{\partial x}\right)_y = -\dfrac{F_x}{F_z}$
Step 2: Multiply the three factors together:
$$\left(-\frac{F_y}{F_x}\right)\left(-\frac{F_z}{F_y}\right)\left(-\frac{F_x}{F_z}\right) = (-1)^3 \cdot \frac{F_y \cdot F_z \cdot F_x}{F_x \cdot F_y \cdot F_z} = -1$$All the partial derivatives cancel in the product, leaving just $(-1)^3 = -1$.
Interpretation: This is surprising! You might expect three "derivatives" that cycle through the variables to multiply to $+1$ - after all, $\frac{dx}{dy} \cdot \frac{dy}{dz} \cdot \frac{dz}{dx}$ looks like it should telescope. But that naive cancellation is wrong because each partial holds a different variable constant. Each implicit differentiation contributes a factor of $-1$, and three of them give $-1$. This "cyclic relation" appears throughout thermodynamics.